Adam to Adam

[Amie]

I posted this in another thread, though would like to hear your thoughts on it in particular rather than in relation to the other topic. Here it is, edited for opening a new topic:


1 Cor 15
22 "for as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive."
Adam died by transgressing the law/breaking covenant with God:

Hosea 6
7 But, like Adam, they have broken the covenant; they have acted like traitors against Me there.

Death reigned over the Gentiles as well:

Romans 5
14 but death reigned from Adam until Moses, even on those who had not sinned in the likeness of Adam's transgression, who is a type of the coming One.

The Adamic covenant:

Genesis 2
16 ¶ And Jehovah God commanded the man, saying, Eating you may eat of every tree in the garden;
17 but of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil you may not eat, for in the day that you eat of it, dying you shall die.

The Mosaic law was "added to increase the trespass" (Romans 5:20)

I believe that death entered through Adam in that the law/covenant was passed on through Adam. He therefore received it on our behalfs, just as Christ later (the "last Adam" 1 Cor 15:45) received and passed on the New Covenant on our behalfs. The trespass of the OC increased in Israel, as did Grace increase in the NC through Israel.

Under the Old Covenant, man pursued God and could not reach him on his own. As you can see in Romans 5:15, "death reigned until Moses", there was some semblance of life in the Law. I think that it twinkled in as hope and faith for the future resurrection. "Where sin abounded grace did much more abound" (Romans 5:20).

Sin ("sin" defined as "trespass of the law") now, no longer abounds. Paul asks the rhetorical question that I think means "Shall the law ordinance remain in place that grace might abound?" I think it means that because if no law convicts us/them, then there is no sin. Here's the reference:

Romans 6
1 ¶ What then shall we say? Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?

Whether or not Grace still abounds, brings this to mind:

John 1
16 And out of His fullness we all received, and grace on top of grace.
17 For the Law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

Keeping the law was the only way to have a covenant relationship with God back then. God said to Moses:

Exodus 19
5 And now if listening you will listen to My voice, and will keep My covenant, you shall become a special treasure to Me above all the nations, for all the earth is Mine.
6 And you shall become a kingdom of priests for Me, a holy nation. These are the words which you shall speak to the sons of Israel.

So if they kept the covenant passed on through Moses, they would be a special treasure, a kingdom of priests, and a holy nation. The people accepted the covenant offered by God through Moses (Exodus 24:7). Problem -- no one was able to keep the law (All were sinners/trespassers Romans 3:23). If Israel could not keep the law, then Israel would not become Priests (intercessors) for God to humanity. Gentiles would remain separate from God and dead, and the Abrahamic covenant couldn't be fulfilled.

Abrahamic covenant: "In you all the families of the earth shall be blessed" (Gen 12:3). "All the land which you see I will give to you, and to your seed always. And I will make your seed as the dust of the earth, so that if a man can count the dust of the earth, then your seed also will be counted." (Gen 12:15, 16). The covenant given to Abraham was unconditional and required no agreement or effort on Abraham's part (Gen 15).

The New Covenant (see also Hebrews 8:8):

Jer 31
31 Behold, the days come, says Jehovah, that I will cut a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah,
32 not according to the covenant that I cut with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt (which covenant of Mine they broke, although I was a husband to them, says Jehovah).
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will cut with the house of Israel: After those days, declares Jehovah, I will put My Law in their inward parts, and I will write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.
34 And they shall no longer each man teach his neighbor, and each man his brother, saying, Know Jehovah. For they shall all know Me, from the least of them even to the greatest of them, declares Jehovah. For I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sins no more.

The New Covenant was also unconditional. When Hebrews was written, the Old Covenant was "growing aged is near disappearing." (Hebrews 8:13). Hebrews 12:24 declares Jesus as the mediator of the New Covenant.

All things were fulfilled in him, and through him, Israel was enabled to become "Kings and Priests".

The New Covenant sort of becomes God's pursuit of humanity - rather than the other way around. So nothing is required on our behalf. God is present with all of humanity and will wait patiently for those who don't notice, to notice - or to know him in the next life.

"Adam" is symbolic for "humanity which died because they ate from the tree of Knowledge".

Hebrews 9
27 And as it is reserved to men once to die, and after this, Judgment;

This can accurately be translated "And as it is reserved to MAN once to die, and after this, Judgment;" The statement is not individualistic as the translation "men" sounds (else women would never die ;)).

The Adamic covenant was fulfilled: Adam died. How then, could anyone be born "in Adam" today?

In what way did Israel act as "Kings and Priests"?

How did Jesus enable them to do so?

How then, do all live in Jesus (1 Cor 15:22) as the "last Adam" (1 Cor 15:45)?

I am so looking forward to your thoughts!!

Amie

[Paige]

Under the Old Covenant, man pursued God and could not reach him on his own. As you can see in Romans 5:15, "death reigned until Moses", there was some semblance of life in the Law.

I agree. Duet. 30:11-20 bears that out. Especially vss. 19&20, " I call heaven and earth as witnesses today against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing; therefore choose life, that both you and youir descendants may live; that you may love the Lord your God, that you may obey His voice, and that you may cling to Him for He is your life and the length of your days; and that you may dwell in the land which the Lord swore to your fathers, to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, to give them."

The way I'm seeing it was though Israel was "dead", they could partake in covenantal life by obedience to the OC. They became "related" to God through it, but it was a limited and conditional relationship. It is my understanding that through Israel, the rest of humanity could also participate in the limited relationship.


Hebrews 9
27 And as it is reserved to men once to die, and after this, Judgment;

This can accurately be translated "And as it is reserved to MAN once to die, and after this, Judgment;" The statement is not individualistic as the translation "men" sounds (else women would never die ).

Amie, the more I look at this vs., the more I'm inclined to agree with davo's reckoning of its application. He goes over this in his article at his site (forgot the name right now). Do you remember it?

What he explains is the the context of the passage is referring to the High Priest who once a year bore the judgement first for themselves, then on behalf of all the rest of Israel. So, the vs. is really not saying that everyone has to physically die and then go before God to be judged as it has commonly been interpreted.

The vs. more accurately reads, "And as it is appointed for (these) men to die once, but after this the judgement," . The "men" being referred to are the very men spoken of throughout ch.9.


In what way did Israel act as "Kings and Priests"?


I think we see it played out perfectly "inside" Israel. Their Priestly system displayed the role that Israel was given on behalf of humanity. Am I making sense? Just as she had her priests bearing her judgement and making atonement for her, she bore the judgement and made atonement for the whole. (Jesus Christ)


How did Jesus enable them to do so?

He did it through them by filling them with Himself. That was the work of the HS, IMO.


How then, do all live in Jesus (1 Cor 15:22) as the "last Adam" (1 Cor 15:45)?

1 Cor. 15:24-28, " Then the end comes, when he will deliver up the Kingdom to God, even the Father; when he will have abolished all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy that will be abolished is death. For, “He put all things in subjection under his feet.”* But when he says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him. When all things have been subjected to him, then the Son will also himself be subjected to him who subjected all things to him, that God may be all in all."

And

Rev. 21:4&5, "...for the former things have passed away. Then He Who sat on the throne said, 'Behold I make all things new.' And He said to me, 'Write, for these words are true and faithful.'"

One has to ask what passed away? IMO, it is exactly what was passing away in the NT transition of the ages. Adam (the old man) had dominion over the the OC, his dominion ended when that covenant passed away.

Paige

[Amie]

What he explains is the the context of the passage is referring to the High Priest who once a year bore the judgement first for themselves, then on behalf of all the rest of Israel. So, the vs. is really not saying that everyone has to physically die and then go before God to be judged as it has commonly been interpreted.

I was suggesting that this is speaking of "Adam" dying once. "Adam" as the representative of humanity (whether the "first" or "last" adam) might go nicely with what Davo has. I don't know that I've read the article that you are talking about though.


I think we see it played out perfectly "inside" Israel. Their Priestly system displayed the role that Israel was given on behalf of humanity. Am I making sense? Just as she had her priests bearing her judgement and making atonement for her, she bore the judgement and made atonement for the whole. (Jesus Christ)

Yes makes sense! The "shadow" is important to remember in trying to understand the "reality".

Amie

[Paige]

I had another thought this morning on this. I don't really know if it goes along perfectly with this, but in regard to:


In what way did Israel act as "Kings and Priests"?

My thought was that God interacted with Israel through her kings and priests. In the same way we see that God interacted with those outside Israel through Israel. I remember back to something that NT Wright pointed out. Israel was to be a light to the rest of the world (lighthouse). She turned the windows of that lighthouse into mirrors and kept that light turned inward. Yet, even in her failure, what happened? God used other nations to bring her into captivity for discipline. In doing so, those nations began to experience the "light" of God!

So, Israel was still able to act as a King and a Priest in regard to those around her, even as she failed. Does this make any sense?

Paige

[Amie]

Paige,

Interesting take, I will have to think on that one.


I just noticed your reply. Sometimes for some reason, I miss some of the things posted

I do that all of the time!


Thank you so much. I was wondering then, Are we considered Priests of the Lord? Or just ordinary people now basking in the knowledge that we don't have to do anything to have a relationship with him, its already here.

I have felt such a burden lifted from me this last year, worried about my entire family. I don't worry now about them "accepting God" I know now that God already has accepted them.

I'm so glad that you've taken on the yolk of Christ (see Matthew 11:30)! I think that the job of "Kings and Priests" was Israel specific. As for our role, I think Davo put it best:


Any divine calling and empowering subsequent to the Parousia was and is for the maintaining and testimony in worship and witness of this grand reality.


On another note, What was the difference between the Covenant to Israel and the one to Judah?

The Covenant given in Jeremiah 31 was to Israel and Judah - same covenant. Judah was actually one of Jacob's (whose name was changed to "Israel") sons. Genesis 49 breaks down each of the sons' blessings (Judah would carry the sceptre until "shiloh" came).

Amie

[Amie]

Romans 5
14 but death reigned from Adam until Moses, even on those who had not sinned in the likeness of Adam's transgression, who is a type of the coming One.

If Christ was the "last Adam", when was "Moses"? It sounds like the two co-existed, like Moses was the beginning of the end for death's reign - though not the end altogether.

As a side note too... How was their life in Moses? I speculated that it might be the hope of the resurrection. I wonder though, if it is just hope itself. Moses did lead his people to the promised land, though he himself couldn't enter in..

What do you think?

Amie